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I was having a little chat with some preacher guy who's a countinualist, long story short, he said the syntax of the verse somehow meant that tounges would cease after Christ return. The of course was 1Corinthians 13:8.

That didn't make any sense to me.

 

Is there something about the way words are ordered in Greek sentinces that it would give that much more depth to the interpretation of the verse?

 

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49 minutes ago, Innerfire89 said:

I was having a little chat with some preacher guy who's a countinualist, long story short, he said the syntax of the verse somehow meant that tounges would cease after Christ return. The of course was 1Corinthians 13:8.

That didn't make any sense to me.

 

Is there something about the way words are ordered in Greek sentinces that it would give that much more depth to the interpretation of the verse?

 

 

@Origen, as to the question Innerfire asked concerning the specific Scripture this continualist gave would you address this? I'm willing to bet, though I don't know Greek, that he gave Innerfire a Red herring.

 

God bless,

William

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I would have to know specifically what he was referring to.  Word order in Greek is much more flexible than English and changes in normal word order can make a difference in emphasis.  However word order alone would not be enough to prove such a claim.  There would have to be more to it than just that.

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9 hours ago, Origen said:

I would have to know specifically what he was referring to.  Word order in Greek is much more flexible than English and changes in normal word order can make a difference in emphasis.  However word order alone would not be enough to prove such a claim.  There would have to be more to it than just that.

That wasn't much help. :classic_rolleyes:

 

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9 hours ago, Origen said:

I would have to know specifically what he was referring to.  Word order in Greek is much more flexible than English and changes in normal word order can make a difference in emphasis.  However word order alone would not be enough to prove such a claim.  There would have to be more to it than just that.

He didn't say anything about how syntax proved his interpitation, he didn't really have much of an argument at all.

 

First he agreed that "perfect" can mean matured or complete, but then he quoted another verse where perfect means perfect and said it means the same in 1Corinthians 13:8. Lol.

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Just now, Innerfire89 said:

He didn't say anything about how syntax proved his interpitation, he didn't really have much of an argument at all.

 

First he agreed that "perfect" can mean matured or complete, but then he quoted another verse where perfect means perfect and said it means the same in 1Corinthians 13:8. Lol.

Do you feel as though in this moment you lost a few IQ points from repeating what he said?

 

Just curious. :classic_rolleyes:

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10 minutes ago, William said:

That wasn't much help. :classic_rolleyes:

 

Sorry!!!

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15 minutes ago, Innerfire89 said:

He didn't say anything about how syntax proved his interpitation, he didn't really have much of an argument at all.

 

First he agreed that "perfect" can mean matured or complete, but then he quoted another verse where perfect means perfect and said it means the same in 1Corinthians 13:8. Lol.

The whole debate rest upon two word, "τὸ τέλειον" (i.e. the perfect).  What is "the perfect"?  However one answers that question will determine whether or not tongues have ceased or will cease at some point in the future.

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33 minutes ago, William said:

Do you feel as though in this moment you lost a few IQ points from repeating what he said?

 

Just curious. :classic_rolleyes:

I think he was doing everything he could to avoid the actual arguments against him.

 

This was actually a YouTube thing, I didn't expect the guy to make a whole video responding to my comment. 3 mins of the video where about my comment, then he went way off topic for another 10 mins. 

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Posted (edited)
30 minutes ago, Origen said:

The whole debate rest upon two word, "τὸ τέλειον" (i.e. the perfect).  What is "the perfect"?  However one answers that question will determine whether or not tongues have ceased or will cease at some point in the future.

Yes, it's that simple, the was just guy reaching as far as he could to make the text bend towards his interpitation.

Edited by Innerfire89

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