Join with others to discuss God and/or the Biblical Doctrine of the Trinity (Godhead). Discuss the attributes and characteristics of God the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

Logos? What does it mean?

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  • Logos? What does it mean?

    What did John meant when he asserted Jesus to be Logos in John 1:1? Is Jesus the mind of God or a person separate from God the Father and yet one in essence? What is the implication of Jesus being the mind of God? Can we say mind of God had separate existence from God the Father? In Matthew's gospel, when disciples asked when kingdom of Israel was going to be restored, Jesus answered that neither the Son knows, only the Father knows. The mind is the realm of thoughts and knowledge, is it? If it is,then Jesus being the mind of God is not making sense.

  • #2
    Jesus is a separate person but shares the same essence with the Father and the Holy Spirit. When Jesus was man, the Father was much greater than He and knew things He did not know. In heaven, they are of one essence, the exact same character. I believe they are in constant agreement with each other and the Holy Spirit and they share the same eternal knowledge. Jesus was the Word from the beginning of the Bible. He was God on earth as God and as man.
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    • #3
      Originally posted by motirattan View Post
      In Matthew's gospel, when disciples asked when kingdom of Israel was going to be restored, Jesus answered that neither the Son knows, only the Father knows.
      John Calvin nails it:

      Surely that man must be singularly mad, who would hesitate to submit to the ignorance which even the Son of God himself did not hesitate to endure on our account. But many persons, thinking that this was unworthy of Christ, have endeavored to mitigate the harshness of this opinion by a contrivance of their own; and perhaps they were driven to employ a subterfuge by the malice of the Arians, who attempted to prove from it that Christ is not the true and only God. So then, according to those men, Christ did not know the last day, because he did not choose to reveal it to men. But since it is manifest that the same kind of ignorance is ascribed to Christ as is ascribed to the angels, we must endeavor to find some other meaning which is more suitable. Before stating it, however, I shall briefly dispose of the objections of those who think that it is an insult offered to the Son of God, if it be said that any kind of ignorance can properly apply to him.

      As to the first objection, that nothing is unknown to God, the answer is easy. For we know that in Christ the two natures were united into one person in such a manner that each retained its own properties; and more especially the Divine nature was in a state of repose, and did not at all exert itself, whenever it was necessary that the human nature should act separately, according to what was peculiar to itself, in discharging the office of Mediator. There would be no impropriety, therefor in saying that Christ, who knew all things, (John 21:17) was ignorant of something in respect of his perception as a man; for otherwise he could not have been liable to grief and anxiety, and could not have been like us, (Heb 2:17.) Again, the objection urged by some—that ignorance cannot apply to Christ, because it is the punishment of sin — is beyond measure ridiculous. For, first, it is prodigious folly to assert that the ignorance which is ascribed to angels proceeds from sin; but they discover themselves to be equally foolish on another ground, by not perceiving that Christ clothed himself with our flesh, for the purpose of enduring the punishment due to our sins. And if Christ, as man, did not know the last day, that does not any more derogate from his Divine nature than to have been mortal.

      I have no doubt that he refers to the office appointed to him by the Father as in a former instance, when he said that it did not belong to him to place this or that person at his right or left hand, (Mat 20:23; Mar 5:40.) For (as I explained under that passage he did not absolutely say that this was not in his power, but the meaning was, that he had not been sent by the Father with this commission, so long as he lived among mortals. So now I understand that, so far as he had come down to us to be Mediator, until he had fully discharged his office that information was not given to him which he received after his resurrection; for then he expressly declared that power over all things had been given to him, (Mat 28:18.)

      Originally posted by motirattan View Post
      The mind is the realm of thoughts and knowledge, is it? If it is,then Jesus being the mind of God is not making sense.
      The "Word" reveals that Jesus is the mind of God, the thought of God, His full and living revelation. Jesus did not just come to tell us what God is like - He showed us. He is the revelation of God: John 1:1 Meaning and Translation -Christforums

      God bless,
      William

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      • #4
        I'm now getting it, although vaguely.
        Thank you!
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        • #5
          Originally posted by motirattan View Post
          What did John meant when he asserted Jesus to be Logos in John 1:1?
          Commentary on John 1:1 -Christforums

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