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Guppy

The name of God

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I find quite often on forums or websites, that people use the name Yahweh or Jehovah or even Lord or the tetragram as the Name of the Father. In other words, when we read old testament scripture, and we see Lord do you think of the Father

 

In the old testament when it speaks of God, do you think of the Father or Jesus or the trinity

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Abba is Father. Yahweh and Jehovah are the names of the pre-incarnate Yeshua or Jesus. Elohim is the plural name of the Godhead or Trinity. Yeshua or Jesus is the name of the incarnate Son of God (also Immanuel). The Holy Spirit is the Holy Spirit or Ruach Hakodesh.

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Yahweh and Jehovah are the names of the pre-incarnate Yeshua or Jesus. Elohim is the plural name of the Godhead or Trinity

I would agree, that when Elohim is use we could see the trinity, an example would be Genesis 1

 

Yahweh being the name of the pre-incarnate Jesus, I think I disagree, I gave it a little thought and at first I though, could it be?

There are many titles they share, The first and the last, the alpha and omega, our rock, The one who saves

 

but then Zechariah, seems to tell us something different

Zechariah 2:12

"Many nations will be joined with the LORD in that day and will become my people. I will live among you and you will know that the LORD Almighty has sent me to you. [Zechariah 2:11 NIV]

 

 

Here in Zechariah 2 We see Yahweh The Father sending Yahweh the Son

 

I think its possible to think of the name of Yahweh this way

 

Yahweh the Father

Yahweh the Son

Yahweh the Holy Spirit

 

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I would agree, that when Elohim is use we could see the trinity, an example would be Genesis 1

 

Yahweh being the name of the pre-incarnate Jesus, I think I disagree, I gave it a little thought and at first I though, could it be?

There are many titles they share, The first and the last, the alpha and omega, our rock, The one who saves

 

but then Zechariah, seems to tell us something different

Zechariah 2:12

"Many nations will be joined with the LORD in that day and will become my people. I will live among you and you will know that the LORD Almighty has sent me to you. [Zechariah 2:11 NIV]

 

 

Here in Zechariah 2 We see Yahweh The Father sending Yahweh the Son

 

I think its possible to think of the name of Yahweh this way

 

Yahweh the Father

Yahweh the Son

Yahweh the Holy Spirit

 

That could be as well. I thought about that too that the name Yahweh may be shared among the Godhead.

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Yahweh being the name of the pre-incarnate Jesus, I think I disagree, I gave it a little thought and at first I though, could it be?

There are many titles they share, The first and the last, the alpha and omega, our rock, The one who saves

 

but then Zechariah, seems to tell us something different

Zechariah 2:12

"Many nations will be joined with the LORD in that day and will become my people. I will live among you and you will know that the LORD Almighty has sent me to you. [Zechariah 2:11 NIV]

 

 

Here in Zechariah 2 We see Yahweh The Father sending Yahweh the Son

Also note Genesis 19:24: "Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the LORD out of heaven."

 

 

 

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Also note Genesis 19:24: "Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the LORD out of heaven."

 

 

 

Do you believe Yahweh is the name of each Person of the Godhead?

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Its cool, when we come here open minded, thanks to both of you.

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Some more information on God's name I pulled from an old Bible Study I have is below. It is a bit more than what you were asking but I thought I would share.

 

The name Jesus means "Savior." It is the same name as Joshua in the Old Testament. It is given to our Lord because "He saves His people from their sins."

 

Yeshua (ישוע, with vowel pointing יֵשׁוּעַ – yēšūă‘ in Hebrew) was a common alternative form of the name יְהוֹשֻׁעַ ("Yehoshuah" – Joshua) in later books of the Hebrew Bible and among Jews of the Second Temple period. Meaning "salvation" in Hebrew, it was also the most common form of the name Jesus hence the name corresponds to the Greek spelling Iesous, from which, through the Latin Iesus, comes the English spelling Jesus.

 

Immanuel means, God with us

 

Elohim = God

Yahweh - Name

Adonai = Lord

El-Roi= God of Vision

El Shaddai= God Almighty

Father= status

 

Elohim = God PLURAL FORM

Yahweh - Name EVER PRESENT, EXISTENT

Adonai = Lord FINAL AUTHORITY

El-Roi= God of Vision ALL SEEING

El Shaddai= God Almighty POWER

Father= status KINDNESS, KINSHIP

 

Adonai means God

 

God's name is I AM

 

 

 

 

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Do you believe Yahweh is the name of each Person of the Godhead?
No. Collectively the Godhead is Yahweh. Thus in Deuteronomy 6:4 we understand there is unity, oneness.
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No. Collectively the Godhead is Yahweh. Thus in Deuteronomy 6:4 we understand there is unity, oneness.

 

I am not disagreeing, but to help me better understand, I have a few questions

 

First, you would agree that this name is not for the Father only

 

Why is it Ok to say God the Father and God the Son and God the Holy Spirit and not Yahweh the Son or Yahweh the Father or Yahweh the Holy Spirit

they all share in their oneness.

 

Who talked to Adam and Moses and Abraham? We are told it was Yahweh, but Jesus said

 

[John 5:37 NIV]

 

And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form,

 

Was Jesus talking specifically to this group or Was he saying no one has heard him or seen his form.

If Jesus was not speaking specifically to that group, then wouldn't it have been, Yahweh the Son who spoke to Adam

 

 

 

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I am not disagreeing, but to help me better understand, I have a few questions

 

First, you would agree that this name is not for the Father only

 

Why is it Ok to say God the Father and God the Son and God the Holy Spirit and not Yahweh the Son or Yahweh the Father or Yahweh the Holy Spirit

they all share in their oneness.

 

Who talked to Adam and Moses and Abraham? We are told it was Yahweh, but Jesus said

 

[John 5:37 NIV]

 

And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form,

 

Was Jesus talking specifically to this group or Was he saying no one has heard him or seen his form.

If Jesus was not speaking specifically to that group, then wouldn't it have been, Yahweh the Son who spoke to Adam

 

 

 

I think in this instance you would just refer to Him as Jesus and forgot the pre-incarnate and incarnate definitions I described as possibilities earlier. I think Origen is right, Yahweh is the triune God of the Godhead and should only be referred that way. I never heard them separated like that using that holy Name.

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I understand and I am not disagreeing, but you have probably not ever heard anyone use Yahweh, when referring to the trinity either.

 

The name of God is used in Genesis, was it God the Father, God the Son or God the Holy spirit that walked and talked with Adam.

It is important to me to have a better understanding of John 5:37 If Jesus was not talking to the specific group. Then who was it with the name LORD in the garden

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I understand and I am not disagreeing, but you have probably not ever heard anyone use Yahweh, when referring to the trinity either.

 

The name of God is used in Genesis, was it God the Father, God the Son or God the Holy spirit that walked and talked with Adam.

It is important to me to have a better understanding of John 5:37 If Jesus was not talking to the specific group. Then who was it with the name LORD in the garden

 

No, you're right, I never hear that Name used to describe the Trinity.

 

I believe it was Jesus in the Garden.

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First, you would agree that this name is not for the Father only
I do agree. The problem is semantics.

 

Since the Godhead is one, and the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are the Godhead, I would agree with you. The whole is Yahweh. Each one could, at lest theoretically, could be referred to as Yahweh, yet that understanding misses the point.

 

Why is it Ok to say God the Father and God the Son and God the Holy Spirit and not Yahweh the Son or Yahweh the Father or Yahweh the Holy Spirit they all share in their oneness.
I don't think it is wrong merely more likely to be misunderstood.

 

Who talked to Adam and Moses and Abraham? We are told it was Yahweh, but Jesus said

 

And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form,

 

Was Jesus talking specifically to this group or Was he saying no one has heard him or seen his form.

 

If Jesus was not speaking specifically to that group, then wouldn't it have been, Yahweh the Son who spoke to Adam

I think you have voiced the problem. While the trinity is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, they are Yahweh.

 

As for John 5:37 I do not really see it as a problem. When Jesus addresses the group, he is not making a metaphysical statement about deity, or God, or the trinity. Jesus point is the Jews don't know the Father, consequently they do not know him. Verse 38 qualifies his point: "you do not have his word abiding in you, for you do not believe the one whom he has sent."

 

 

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I understand and I am not disagreeing, but you have probably not ever heard anyone use Yahweh, when referring to the trinity either.

 

The name of God is used in Genesis, was it God the Father, God the Son or God the Holy spirit that walked and talked with Adam.

All. I see no reason to separate them into individual persons. Yahweh is one.

 

It is important to me to have a better understanding of John 5:37 If Jesus was not talking to the specific group. Then who was it with the name LORD in the garden
Why do you think it has to be only one? Edited by Origen
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I do agree. The problem is semantics.

 

Since the Godhead is one, and the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are the Godhead, I would agree with you. The whole is Yahweh. Each one could, at lest theoretically, could be referred to as Yahweh, yet that understanding misses the point.

 

I don't think it is wrong merely more likely to be misunderstood.

 

I think you have voiced the problem. While the trinity is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, they are Yahweh.

 

As for John 5:37 I do not really see it as a problem. When Jesus addresses the group, he is not making a metaphysical statement about deity, or God, or the trinity. Jesus point is the Jews don't know the Father, consequently they do not know him. Verse 38 qualifies his point: "you do not have his word abiding in you, for you do not believe the one whom he has sent."

 

 

So you believe it was the entire Godhead in the Garden?

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So you believe it was the entire Godhead in the Garden?
Is there any exegetical reason not to?

 

 

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Is there any exegetical reason not to?

 

 

No, I think you may be right. I use to think it was only Jesus in the Garden but I wasn't sure. It could have been the entire Godhead.

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No, I think you may be right. I use to think it was just Jesus in the Garden but I wasn't sure.
I really do believe there is a real danger in trying to understand the trinity that we divide the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit into more than one god. While the Father is a person, Jesus is a person, the Holy Spirit is a person, they cannot be so easily dived off from each other since the text is clear that there is ONLY ONE Yahweh.

 

You bring up the word elohim. It is true that the word is plural but it is always take a singular verb and is modified by singular adjectives (when referring to the God of Israel).

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I really do believe there is a real danger in trying to understand the trinity that we divide the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit into more than one god. While the Father is a person, Jesus is a person, the Holy Spirit is a person, they cannot be so easily dived off from each other since the text is clear that there is ONLY ONE Yahweh.

 

You bring up the word elohim. It is true that the word is plural but it is always take a singular verb and is modified by singular adjectives (when referring to the God of Israel).

 

Some good points. Yahweh alone is the one God and we should be careful in separating Him.

 

Elohim, I was taught, is the plural of the Godhead and always stood for the Godhead and not a single Person of the Godhead. Do you agree with that?

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Why do you think it has to be only one?

 

No I don't

My concerns were with John 5:37, if Jesus was only speaking to those unbelieving Jews, then I am in agreement with you

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Some good points. Yahweh alone is the one God and we should be careful in separating Him.

 

Elohim, I was taught, is the plural of the Godhead and always stood for the Godhead and not a single Person of the Godhead. Do you agree with that?

I do believe it at the very least suggest that. The noun alone can't give us a doctrine of the trinity but give the grammar, and other key O.T. texts, it points in that direction. Thus when we come to the N.T., there is no doubt that Christ is God. But note that came about because of a revelation from God Himself. Edited by Origen
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My concerns were with John 5:37, if Jesus was only speaking to those unbelieving Jews, then I am in agreement with you
I tend to think the context and content would point to that. That long section begins at John 5:18.

 

"This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God."

 

Then in verse 19 it states: "So Jesus said to them..." clearly referring back to the Jews who wanted to kill him. Add to that verse 38 where Jesus tells them "you do not have his word abiding in you, for you do not believe the one whom he has sent" and it all fits together nicely.

Edited by Origen
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I do believe it at the very least suggest that. The noun alone can't give us a doctrine of the trinity but give the grammar, and other key O.T. texts, point in that direction. Thus when we come to the N.T., there is no doubt that Christ is God. But note that came about because of revelation from God.

 

I agree.

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I tend to think the context and content would point to that. That long section begins at John 5:18.

 

"This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God."

 

Then in verse 19 it states: "So Jesus said to them..." clearly referring back to the Jews who want to kill him. Add to that verse 38 tell them "you do not have his word abiding in you, for you do not believe the one whom he has sent" and it all fits together nicely.

 

I think that is the proper interpretation.

 

Do you believe it was the Godhead on Mount Sinai that wrote the Ten Commandments and then had Moses re-write the Ten Commandments? Should we always assume Lord or LORD refers to the Godhead in OT?

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