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phil boyce-bottoms

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If the birth of jesus was the greatest event in the hustory of mankind,

Why did only nine people turn up?

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If the birth of jesus was the greatest event in the hustory of mankind,

Why did only nine people turn up?

 

I wouldn't measure the greatness of an event by the people that turn up. Certainly the faithful remnant of Israel would of have shown for the birth of the long awaited Messiah. Then, why didn't they? Probably, because Joseph and Mary were on the move, there was a degree of secrecy surrounding the location of baby Jesus. Look at how Herod had reacted, he became furious and sent soldiers to kill all the boys in and around Bethlehem who were two years old and under when learning about the prophetic birth of the new born King- Matthew 2:16.

 

God bless,

William

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On the one side, Mary and Joseph had to protect baby Jesus from those who would kill him, meaning hiding him On the other side, I believe lots of people did come to visit baby Jesus. The Bible doesn't tell us how many, but saying nine came is just pointing out the low-end of the range of the number of possible visitors.

 

Other than Mary and Joseph's attempt to hide Jesus, it's reasonable that many, many of people came to see Jesus. The magi (teachers, priests, physicians, astrologers, augers, soothsayers, etc.) from the East were likely far more than just three. The shepherds in the fields could have been hundreds. The stars, the proclamation of the Angels, and Herod's desire to kill all the babies in Bethlehem would have made practically every Jew in the land want to come see the baby called the King of the Jews.

 

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The letter 'J' is not in the hebrew alphabet,

its a 'Y',

And didn't exsist as we know til the 17th century,

what was the name of jesus before this time?

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The letter 'J' is not in the hebrew alphabet,

its a 'Y',

And didn't exsist as we know til the 17th century,

what was the name of jesus before this time?

 

Yeshua is the Hebrew name for the Lord. It means "Yahweh [the Lord] is Salvation." The English spelling of Yeshua is “Joshua.” However, when translated from Hebrew into the Greek language, the name Yeshua becomes Iēsous. The English spelling for Iēsous is “Jesus.” Basically, what this means is Joshua and Jesus are the same name. One is translated from Hebrew into English, the other from Greek into English. It is also interesting to note, the names "Joshua" and "Isaiah" are essentially the same names as Yeshua in Hebrew. They mean "Savior" and "the salvation of the Lord."

 

For further reading: If His name was Yeshua, why do we call Him Jesus?

 

God bless,

William

 

 

 

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Noah's ark,

which is a story from Suma.

Happened 3600 years before the bible was written.

Why is it the bible?

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While I am not familiar with the Suma story, I would think that many would have similar stories or accounts of a worldwide flood. On this note, there maybe a creation account consistently known to some people, at least until the confounding of languages in Genesis 11:7. It would explain why there can at times be a thread of truth woven throughout many accounts/ or historical testimonies worldwide. However, one must also recognize that while it may be true that stories were handed down from one generation to another in oral fashion, the first books of the Bible were directly revealed to Moses - Moses was literate and educated, knowing how to write. This is not to suggest the stories were known since creation and handed down since then, from one generation to another generation until Moses, but rather that Direct Revelation was the means the accounts were received by Moses.

 

God bless,

William

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Yeshua is the Hebrew name for the Lord. It means "Yahweh [the Lord] is Salvation." The English spelling of Yeshua is “Joshua.” However, when translated from Hebrew into the Greek language, the name Yeshua becomes Iēsous. The English spelling for Iēsous is “Jesus.” Basically, what this means is Joshua and Jesus are the same name. One is translated from Hebrew into English, the other from Greek into English.

 

Yeshua transliterated into English is Yeshua. Jesus' name, the only name we're given by scripture and Church fathers, when transliterated into English is Iesous. It starts with a long-E sound, not a Y or J. And, ends in an S sound, not A. Jesus is Iesous anglicized (we speak English, not Greek, after all). But, if anyone is so inclined to call Jesus what he was called by his contemporaries, the name is Iesous.

 

 

 

 

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While I am not familiar with the Suma story, I would think that many would have similar stories or accounts of a worldwide flood.

 

Even pre-Columbian Americans had a flood account. In one such account, everyone dies in the Flood and God (or, a god) recreates mankind from rocks of the ground. These are the most isolated people in the world from the middle-east, and yet they still have stories that sound similar to Genesis. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_flood_myths

 

If the Flood happened, the Hebrews wouldn't be the only people to have some some memory of it. Critics try to put the Bible into a catch-22. If the story is found outside the Bible, then the Bible stole it. If the story is found only in the Bible, then the Bible made it up.

 

 

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Yeshua transliterated into English is Yeshua. Jesus' name, the only name we're given by scripture and Church fathers, when transliterated into English is Iesous. It starts with a long-E sound, not a Y or J. And, ends in an S sound, not A. Jesus is Iesous anglicized (we speak English, not Greek, after all). But, if anyone is so inclined to call Jesus what he was called by his contemporaries, the name is Iesous.

 

I just framed a page from an original 1599 Geneva Bible on my wall. Thought it would be kind of neat to have a discussion starter in the living room for guests. Interestingly, the spelling of Jesus is actually Iesvs. Can anyone clarify the reasoning?

 

Here's a picture, please excuse the tilted hand when photographing it...

 

[ATTACH=CONFIG]n2372[/ATTACH]

 

Geneva - 1599.JPG

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As a matter of fact, post #7 speaks for the entire Bible; that it is divinely inspired by God and written under the direction of the Holy Ghost. Some authors also had direct revelation from God bringing prophets and apostles to Heaven in the spirit to be told the prophecies and events, prior to and after Job, the oldest book in the Bible. I think I know where you might be going with this, Phil. There are many pagan religions that cross paths in a few places with the Bible, thus raising questions in some people's minds about what makes the Bible valid and the rest pagan? Read Hebrews 11 which defines faith. Faith comes from hearing and hearing by the word of God (which means Jesus and the Bible). Without faith, there is no understanding the Bible in the spiritual sense. Ask and you shall receive. (I am being presumptuous that you do not believe, but I realize I could be wrong.) I have someone I am working on this very topic with and he is an atheist.

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I just framed a page from an original 1599 Geneva Bible on my wall. Thought it would be kind of neat to have a discussion starter in the living room for guests. Interestingly, the spelling of Jesus is actually Iesvs. Can anyone clarify the reasoning?

 

Here's a picture, please excuse the tilted hand when photographing it...

 

[ATTACH=CONFIG]n2372[/ATTACH]

 

 

 

In early English, V was the same as the modern U. There was no U (except when someone rounded the bottom of a V, as a matter of style).

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In early English, V was the same as the modern U. There was no U (except when someone rounded the bottom of a V, as a matter of style).

 

Thanks bro. There are quite a few symbols and letters I don't recognize on the page (the S and F appear as a mutually shared letter/ or symbol). The picture does show why I purchased a Geneva (not an original like in the picture, but a 1599 republished edition). Wish I knew about Esword before I purchased it for those notes of the Reformers which can be seen in the picture. However, besides being a collector or conversation starter, it sits shelved while my ESV gets worn out, both in print and electronically on Esword.

 

On another note, Cornelius, if by chance you ever wish to, I wouldn't mind reading a short introduction by you. Tell us something about yourself in the Welcome Mat? You have been with us now for some time, bro.

 

And, welcome to the forums, Phil. Likewise feel free to introduce yourself as well.

 

God bless,

William

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Another OE style is the use of the word "fats" instead of "vats".

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How could there be a world wide flood, when there isn't enough water to do this?

And....

why would you do sush a thing, if you were a supreme being, if you could just un-create what you've done?

And...

the flood was sent, because GOD was unhappy with humans,

BUT....

didn't do anything when the humans killed Jesus?

Doesn't make sense to me?

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So in the garden of eden, was adam and eve,

They got chucked out.

they had two sons,

One killed the other.

 

How did the humans get to were we are now?

 

Where were the;

Africans,

American indians,

Aboriginies,

And

Chinese?

 

Also.....

Did adam and eve have belly buttons?

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How could there be a world wide flood, when there isn't enough water to do this?

 

Meteorologists raise similarly interesting objections to a worldwide flood. “We don’t have enough cloud cover to get rain to fall for ‘forty days and forty nights’ to flood the earth.” That’s a valid point, but that’s not what Scripture says. According to Genesis 7:11, the Flood happened because “all the springs of the great deep burst forth, and the floodgates of the heavens were opened.” It wasn’t clouds with rainwater that flooded the earth, but possibly a release of massive subterranean waters by seismic and volcanic activity.

 

The underground reservoir(s), which are said to be three times the volume of the oceans on the surface: Huge 'Ocean" Discovered inside Earth

 

As to the rest of your post, are you assuming that God is no smarter than a person asking themselves these hypothetical questions (Isaiah 55:8-9)?

 

God bless,

William

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Meteorologists raise similarly interesting objections to a worldwide flood. “We don’t have enough cloud cover to get rain to fall for ‘forty days and forty nights’ to flood the earth.” That’s a valid point, but that’s not what Scripture says. According to Genesis 7:11, the Flood happened because “all the springs of the great deep burst forth, and the floodgates of the heavens were opened.” It wasn’t clouds with rainwater that flooded the earth, but possibly a release of massive subterranean waters by seismic and volcanic activity.

 

The underground reservoir(s), which are said to be three times the volume of the oceans on the surface: Huge 'Ocean" Discovered inside Earth

 

As to the rest of your post, are you assuming that God is no smarter than a person asking themselves these hypothetical questions (Isaiah 55:8-9)?

 

God bless,

William

 

So your saying that the earth could be hollow?

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So your saying that the earth could be hollow?

 

I am suggesting what Scripture states, thousands of years before scientific discovery. Did you read the attached scientific article?

 

God bless,

William

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Don't forget,

 

God abolished all of Cains descendants during the great flood in the time of Noahs Ark.

 

I can only imagine why he did this.

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The Atlantic and Pacific rifts are great enough for such amounts of water to gush out or to drain the water out until the void in the earth's crust was full. This is just a theory. Further, the mountains were formed by shifting of tectonic plates in the earth's crust, which could easily have been done while the ark was afloat. God rearranged the land, the seas, the weather. Is any thing too hard for the Lord? Why do people look at present circumstances and events in nature as if nature always behaved that way without other things happening to cause changes? Nature is not consistent. Background radiation changes, solar radiation changes, the earth's climate cycles due to natural changes, and so on.

 

As for the OP, we have strayed. Jesus came in the most humbling of surroundings, not with a herald of trumpets because He was prophesied to come that way. Throughout the OT, especially Isaiah 53, read, as these explain the prophesy of the first coming of Jesus. His coming matches up with the prophesy, not what people expect, who do not know or believe the prophecies.

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How could there be a world wide flood, when there isn't enough water to do this?

And....

why would you do sush a thing, if you were a supreme being, if you could just un-create what you've done?

And...

the flood was sent, because GOD was unhappy with humans,

BUT....

didn't do anything when the humans killed Jesus?

Doesn't make sense to me?

 

 

If the Earth were completely flat, all the land would be covered by two miles of water. It has been proposed that dry land appeared after the flood by continental plate movements. The Earth was relatively flat before the flood and much less flat after the flood. And, in the wake of the flood, an ice age that locked up a great amount of water in glaciers, causing land bridges to connect the continents, allowing global migration.

 

God destroyed Judea in a very deadly war, as punishment for killing Jesus, Luke 19:43-44, Luke 21:21-23. And, I know I'm in a minority among Christians in saying this, but God also ended the natural line of Israel. There are no racial Jews anymore. There is no Israel exempt the nation of Saints.

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If your last statement is so in #22, who are the 144,000, 12,000 from each tribe of Israel spoken of in Revelation 7:4-8. It says "They were of the tribe of... " They are not mixed race, but pure race and tribe. What you are speaking of sounds like British Israelism, which is false doctrine.

 

Also Ezekiel 6:8-10 tells how Israel will be (and now still is to a large extent ) scattered, left as a remnant.

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If your last statement is so in #22, who are the 144,000, 12,000 from each tribe of Israel spoken of in Revelation 7:4-8. It says "They were of the tribe of... " They are not mixed race, but pure race and tribe. What you are speaking of sounds like British Israelism, which is false doctrine.

 

Also Ezekiel 6:8-10 tells how Israel will be (and now still is to a large extent ) scattered, left as a remnant.

 

 

Ezekiel 6:8-10 tells how Israel will be scattered, left as a remnant. This was fulfilled in 586BC, the start of Babylonian captivity. There are several lines of evidence to show that Ezekiel referred to this, not 70AD. One example is Ezekiel says the judgement is for idolatry. In 70AD, Jerusalem wasn't destroyed for idolatry.

 

As or the 144,000, here are a few cut-and-paste possibilities, not that I necessarily go with any of these:

 

Historicists associate the 144,000 with the Church. They believe the number is symbolic and indicates the totality of the Church.

 

Preterists believe that 144,000 is a symbolic number of Jewish Christians who escaped the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.

 

Futurists claim that the 144,000 are either a remnant of the Jewish people (literal) or the last generation of Christians alive during the Tribulation (symbolic).

 

Idealists consider the 144,000 to be a symbolic number representing all God's people throughout all history under the old and new covenants (i.e. spiritual Israel).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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