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rstrats

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  1. reformed baptist, re: "I've given up..." But I haven't. It's still possible that someone in the furture may know of examples.
  2. rstrats

    Easter: The Devil’s Holiday

    Just so it's understood that there is no Biblical record of the apostles or early Christians celebrating the Messiah's resurrection except as a fulfillment of the Feast of First Fruits.
  3. rstrats

    The Passover Problem Solved

    re: "The gospels say Jesus died on the day of preperation - ie Friday (Mat 27:62; Luk 23:54; Jon 19:14; 31; 42" I don't see where those verses say anything about a Friday. re: " Jesus said he would rise on the third day (not after it..." Mark 8:31 - "And He began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things, and be rejected by the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again." re: "It was the third day that Jesus met with his disciples on the road to Emmaus (Luke 24:21)" Actually, they said it was "the third since these things happened". That would mean that the crucifixion couldn't have occurred any later than the 5th day of the week.
  4. rstrats

    Defining Easter's Days And Nights

    Don't ask what?
  5. rstrats

    Defining Easter's Days And Nights

    theophilus, re: "She [Esther] did not specify the number of nights as Jesus did." As I said previously, it wouldn't make any difference if both phases mean the same because there is nothing in the Esther account that precludes at least a portion of each one of three daytimes and at least a portion of each one of three night times.
  6. OK, no problem. Perhaps someone new looking in may know of examples.
  7. atpollard, re: "Like Jesus statement ‘Three days and three nights’ could either have been meant literally (in which case many other scripture verses stating ‘on the third day’ are wrong)..." Not if it's referring to the third day after the burial which is in line with Mark 8:31 and Luke 24:21. But that's an issue for a different topic. re: "...you have CHOSEN to view it literally unless someone can prove it was a figure of speech." That is not what I'm requesting. re: "In exactly the same way, Ester can have meant the obvious ‘figure of speech’ and began and ended the fast during the day with no third night..." But nothing in the account requires or shows that she did begin the fast in the daytime. She could have begun during the night. The account doesn't say one way or the other. Therefore, it's not an example of where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred. re: "And what will you do with all of the verses that say Jesus rose on the THIRD day?" That's an issue for a different topic. Perhaps you could start one. re: "What about the two men walking who said ‘this is the third day since all this (Jesus arrest and crucifixion) happened’ ... Did they really mean this is the fourth day?" That's an issue for a different topic. re: "The choices are accept the idiom or get out a sharpie and start changing lots of other verses. You have chosen the sharpie by steadfastly rejecting all evidence of an idiom." Because none of the "evidence" has provided any examples which show that it was common to forecast or say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.
  8. atpollard, Or: night 1 - fast begins day 1 - fast continues night 2 - fast continues day 2 - fast continues night 3 - fast continues day 3 - fast continues and she sees the king
  9. rstrats

    Defining Easter's Days And Nights

    Actually, it wouldn't make any difference if both phases mean the same because there is nothing in the Esther account that precludes at least a portion of each one of three daytimes and at least a portion of each one of three night times.
  10. rstrats

    Defining Easter's Days And Nights

    She said "Night and day." She did not say "Three days and three nights." The fact that only two nights were involved is irrelevant. theophilus, re: "She said 'Night and day.' She did not say 'Three days and three nights.' The fact that only two nights were involved is irrelevant." Actually, it wouldn't make any difference if both phases mean the same because there is nothing in the Esther account that precludes at least a portion of each one of three daytimes and at least a portion of each one of three night times.
  11. reformed baptist, re: "...quite simply your not open to the evidence..." Evidence exactly of what? How does it show examples of where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime and/or no part of a night time could have occurred?
  12. reformed Baptist, re: "You can lead a horse to water......." But so far it has been the wrong water.
  13. so what is the concern of the topic - you have asked for examples of a idiomatic usages and they have been supplied Thanks Ok - the two issues are clearly linked and both are expressed :D The simple is my friend, in my opinion your asking the question with a priori assumption no such evidence exists and therefore all evidence that is presented is arbitrarily rejected. reformed baptist, re: "so what is the concern of the topic..." OK, let me repeat one more time: The concern of this topic is with regard to one issue and one issue only. 1. The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth" 2. There are those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week. 3. Of those, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb. 4. A 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved. 5. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, some of those mentioned above say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language. 6. I simply wonder if anyone from the above category might provide examples to support that belief of commonality; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred? re: "...you have asked for examples of a idiomatic usages and they have been supplied" But not the right usages. Nowhere have any examples been provided which show where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime and/or no part of a night time could have occurred. re: "...in my opinion your asking the question with a priori assumption no such evidence exists and therefore all evidence that is presented is arbitrarily rejected." It's not arbitrarily rejected. The rejection of your 'evidence' is based on the fact that none of it shows where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime and/or no part of a night time could have occurred.
  14. reformed baptist, re: " So three examples from scripture where part of a day is referenced as a full day...isn't enough for you..." That is correct because that is not the concern or issue of this topic. re: "OK - forgive me for missing it..." Nothing to forgive - I was merely pointing out a question to you in case you may have missed it. re: "I discrean at least two positions" As far as I know, I have stated only 1 position which is relevant to this topic, i.e., that if someone says or implies that it was common to forecast or say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime time or no part of a night time could occur (for example when the Messiah said that a third night time would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth" when that wasn't possible with a 6th day of week burial) then other examples would have to be known in order to legitimately say that it was common.
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