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Kyrios in the New Testament

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Kyrios (often translated as 'Lord') is quite often ambiguously used in the New Testament in reference to either the Father or the Son (and both).

This vagueness is intentional. Since the Lord Jesus is God such reluctance in being specific is expected.

 

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From Thayer's Greek Lexicon:

 

Kyrios:

  1. he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord

    1. the possessor and disposer of a thing
      1. the owner; one who has control of the person, the master
      2. in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperor

      [*]is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master

      [*]this title is given to: God, the Messiah

       

      A good word.

      It seems appropriate that we should call Him (God: Father and Son) "Kyrios".


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Yes, I agree.

 

Interestingly, in 'Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament' there are a few places where "Lord" applies to both God (the Father) and to the Lord Jesus.

 

For example here is one of them:

 

2 Corinthians 3:16

but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away. (NASB)

1. Concerning 'turns' (epistrephō): to God, 1 Thessalonians 1:9; 2 Corinthians 3:16

http://biblehub.com/greek/1994.htm

2. Concerning 'Lord' (kyrios): to Jesus as the Messiah...2 Corinthians 3:16

http://biblehub.com/greek/2962.htm

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The citation below is taken from 'The Use of KYRIOS in the Book of Acts' by J. C. O'Neill which appears in the Scottish Journal of Theology (Volume 8, Issue 2, c. June 1955)

 

The narrative and/or editorial parts of Acts gives little scope for clear decisions about the connotation of Kurios. This is to be expected, as the book was meant for people who would either be quite clear about what was meant, or else would be in much the same situation as Christians today who can talk about 'the Lord' without specifying any one Person of the Trinity. This surface confusion fits a situation where Jesus is known as LORD (page 166).

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That is quite an interesting question. I do not seek to necessarily dismiss it as irrelevant, especially as a more serious theologian and scholar of both the Old Testament and the New Testament. Yet I do not see the necessity to know the answer. Our God is Who He says He is, and our current Bible is enough.

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Warning: Kermit Zarley does not believe the Lord Jesus is God. This is a terrible heresy.

 

 

We are first told by Kermit Zarley that Paul applies the title "Lord" exclusively to Jesus but in the next citation he teaches that the "Lord" in 1 Timothy 6:15 applies to the Father.

 

1. Kermit Zarley: Paul, unlike other NT authors, applies the title “Lord” (Greek kurios) exclusively to Jesus and thus never to the Father. (Is Jesus God Because He is Lord?, paragraph #6)

http://www.21stcr.org/multimedia-201...e_is_lord.html

 

2. Kemit Zarley: He also writes that God the Father “is the blessed and only Sovereign” (1 Timothy 6.15). (What Was Paul's Christology?, last paragraph)

http://www.21stcr.org/multimedia-201...ristology.html

 

Furthermore, 2 Corinthians 6:18 presents another serious dilemma for Mr. Zarley concerning Paul's use of "Lord." It reads: "And I will be a father to you, And you shall be sons and daughters to Me," Says the Lord Almighty. (NASB)

Since Mr. Zarely insists that the "Lord" refers to the Lord Jesus does this mean he believes the Lord Jesus is "the Lord Almighty" in 2 Corinthians 6:18?

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That is quite an interesting question. I do not seek to necessarily dismiss it as irrelevant, especially as a more serious theologian and scholar of both the Old Testament and the New Testament. Yet I do not see the necessity to know the answer. Our God is Who He says He is, and our current Bible is enough.

Not a question whose answer is necessary, as much as a question worth asking.

 

Just as a matter of 100% personal opinion, I will gain more pondering the mystery and wonder of who it is that I call 'LORD' (I expect to never fully understand this whole Trinity-Godhead thing until I am face to face with Him ... and maybe not even then) than I will benefit from expending the same effort into the mystery of the details of "sufficient for all, but efficient only for the elect.” (which is a matter that I cannot influence since God will have mercy on whom he will have mercy, and has yet to seek my council on the matter.) :RpS_smile:

 

... But it is useful to ponder who I am praying to.

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Hebrews 1:10[*1]

And, You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands. (ESV)

 

 

The following is from "biblicalunitarian":

 

Authors who believe that the verse refers to the Son:

Broughton and Southgate, pp. 289-295

Buzzard, pp. 161 and 162

Racovian Catechism, pp. 95-105

 

Authors who believe that the verse applies to the Father

Hyndman, p. 137

Morgridge, p. 122

Norton, p. 214

http://www.biblicalunitarian.com/verses/hebrews-1-10

 

Once again we see those that deny the Lord Jesus is God at a total loss in distinguishing the Creator from their "creature-jesus."

 

 

 

[*1] Concerning "Lord" (kyrios) in Hebrews 1:10 the BDAG (3rd Edition) reads, "kyrios is also used in reference to Jesus" (page 577-578) and yet His "hands" (cheir) are those of the "Creator" (page 1082).

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Notice how "the Lord" from the following passages refers to the Father and to the Lord Jesus.

 

1. The presence of the Lord 

This refers to the Father (Acts 3:19), and to the Lord Jesus (2 Thessalonians 1:9; cf. 1 Thessalonians 2:19).

 

2. In the sight of the Lord 

This refers to the Father (Luke 1:15), and to the Lord Jesus (2 Corinthians 8:21).

 

3. The glory of the Lord

This refers to the Father (Luke 2:9), and to the Lord Jesus (2 Corinthians 8:19; cf. v. 23).

 

4. The discipline of the Lord 

This refers to the Father (Hebrews 12:5), and to the Lord Jesus (Ephesians 6:4; cf. Revelation 3:19).

 

5. In the name of the Lord

This refers to the Father (James 5:10), and to the Lord Jesus (James 5:14; cf. Acts 9:27-28).

 

 

 

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