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    If the birth of jesus was the greatest event in the hustory of mankind,
    Why did only nine people turn up?

  • #2
    Originally posted by phil boyce-bottoms View Post
    If the birth of jesus was the greatest event in the hustory of mankind,
    Why did only nine people turn up?
    I wouldn't measure the greatness of an event by the people that turn up. Certainly the faithful remnant of Israel would of have shown for the birth of the long awaited Messiah. Then, why didn't they? Probably, because Joseph and Mary were on the move, there was a degree of secrecy surrounding the location of baby Jesus. Look at how Herod had reacted, he became furious and sent soldiers to kill all the boys in and around Bethlehem who were two years old and under when learning about the prophetic birth of the new born King- Matthew 2:16.

    God bless,
    William
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    • #3
      On the one side, Mary and Joseph had to protect baby Jesus from those who would kill him, meaning hiding him On the other side, I believe lots of people did come to visit baby Jesus. The Bible doesn't tell us how many, but saying nine came is just pointing out the low-end of the range of the number of possible visitors.

      Other than Mary and Joseph's attempt to hide Jesus, it's reasonable that many, many of people came to see Jesus. The magi (teachers, priests, physicians, astrologers, augers, soothsayers, etc.) from the East were likely far more than just three. The shepherds in the fields could have been hundreds. The stars, the proclamation of the Angels, and Herod's desire to kill all the babies in Bethlehem would have made practically every Jew in the land want to come see the baby called the King of the Jews.
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      • #4
        The letter 'J' is not in the hebrew alphabet,
        its a 'Y',
        And didn't exsist as we know til the 17th century,
        what was the name of jesus before this time?
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        • #5
          Originally posted by phil boyce-bottoms View Post
          The letter 'J' is not in the hebrew alphabet,
          its a 'Y',
          And didn't exsist as we know til the 17th century,
          what was the name of jesus before this time?
          Yeshua is the Hebrew name for the Lord. It means "Yahweh [the Lord] is Salvation." The English spelling of Yeshua is “Joshua.” However, when translated from Hebrew into the Greek language, the name Yeshua becomes Iēsous. The English spelling for Iēsous is “Jesus.” Basically, what this means is Joshua and Jesus are the same name. One is translated from Hebrew into English, the other from Greek into English. It is also interesting to note, the names "Joshua" and "Isaiah" are essentially the same names as Yeshua in Hebrew. They mean "Savior" and "the salvation of the Lord."

          For further reading: If His name was Yeshua, why do we call Him Jesus?

          God bless,
          William


          Comment>

          • #6
            Noah's ark,
            which is a story from Suma.
            Happened 3600 years before the bible was written.
            Why is it the bible?
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            • #7
              While I am not familiar with the Suma story, I would think that many would have similar stories or accounts of a worldwide flood. On this note, there maybe a creation account consistently known to some people, at least until the confounding of languages in Genesis 11:7. It would explain why there can at times be a thread of truth woven throughout many accounts/ or historical testimonies worldwide. However, one must also recognize that while it may be true that stories were handed down from one generation to another in oral fashion, the first books of the Bible were directly revealed to Moses - Moses was literate and educated, knowing how to write. This is not to suggest the stories were known since creation and handed down since then, from one generation to another generation until Moses, but rather that Direct Revelation was the means the accounts were received by Moses.

              God bless,
              William
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              • #8
                Originally posted by William View Post

                Yeshua is the Hebrew name for the Lord. It means "Yahweh [the Lord] is Salvation." The English spelling of Yeshua is “Joshua.” However, when translated from Hebrew into the Greek language, the name Yeshua becomes Iēsous. The English spelling for Iēsous is “Jesus.” Basically, what this means is Joshua and Jesus are the same name. One is translated from Hebrew into English, the other from Greek into English.
                Yeshua transliterated into English is Yeshua. Jesus' name, the only name we're given by scripture and Church fathers, when transliterated into English is Iesous. It starts with a long-E sound, not a Y or J. And, ends in an S sound, not A. Jesus is Iesous anglicized (we speak English, not Greek, after all). But, if anyone is so inclined to call Jesus what he was called by his contemporaries, the name is Iesous.



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                • #9
                  Originally posted by William View Post
                  While I am not familiar with the Suma story, I would think that many would have similar stories or accounts of a worldwide flood.
                  Even pre-Columbian Americans had a flood account. In one such account, everyone dies in the Flood and God (or, a god) recreates mankind from rocks of the ground. These are the most isolated people in the world from the middle-east, and yet they still have stories that sound similar to Genesis. List of flood myths - Wikipedia

                  If the Flood happened, the Hebrews wouldn't be the only people to have some some memory of it. Critics try to put the Bible into a catch-22. If the story is found outside the Bible, then the Bible stole it. If the story is found only in the Bible, then the Bible made it up.

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                  • #10
                    Originally posted by Cornelius View Post

                    Yeshua transliterated into English is Yeshua. Jesus' name, the only name we're given by scripture and Church fathers, when transliterated into English is Iesous. It starts with a long-E sound, not a Y or J. And, ends in an S sound, not A. Jesus is Iesous anglicized (we speak English, not Greek, after all). But, if anyone is so inclined to call Jesus what he was called by his contemporaries, the name is Iesous.
                    I just framed a page from an original 1599 Geneva Bible on my wall. Thought it would be kind of neat to have a discussion starter in the living room for guests. Interestingly, the spelling of Jesus is actually Iesvs. Can anyone clarify the reasoning?

                    Here's a picture, please excuse the tilted hand when photographing it...

                    Click image for larger version

Name:	Geneva - 1599.JPG
Views:	1
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ID:	2372

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                    • #11
                      As a matter of fact, post #7 speaks for the entire Bible; that it is divinely inspired by God and written under the direction of the Holy Ghost. Some authors also had direct revelation from God bringing prophets and apostles to Heaven in the spirit to be told the prophecies and events, prior to and after Job, the oldest book in the Bible. I think I know where you might be going with this, Phil. There are many pagan religions that cross paths in a few places with the Bible, thus raising questions in some people's minds about what makes the Bible valid and the rest pagan? Read Hebrews 11 which defines faith. Faith comes from hearing and hearing by the word of God (which means Jesus and the Bible). Without faith, there is no understanding the Bible in the spiritual sense. Ask and you shall receive. (I am being presumptuous that you do not believe, but I realize I could be wrong.) I have someone I am working on this very topic with and he is an atheist.
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                      • #12
                        Originally posted by William View Post

                        I just framed a page from an original 1599 Geneva Bible on my wall. Thought it would be kind of neat to have a discussion starter in the living room for guests. Interestingly, the spelling of Jesus is actually Iesvs. Can anyone clarify the reasoning?

                        Here's a picture, please excuse the tilted hand when photographing it...

                        [ATTACH=CONFIG]n2372[/ATTACH]

                        In early English, V was the same as the modern U. There was no U (except when someone rounded the bottom of a V, as a matter of style).
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                        • #13
                          Originally posted by Cornelius View Post


                          In early English, V was the same as the modern U. There was no U (except when someone rounded the bottom of a V, as a matter of style).
                          Thanks bro. There are quite a few symbols and letters I don't recognize on the page (the S and F appear as a mutually shared letter/ or symbol). The picture does show why I purchased a Geneva (not an original like in the picture, but a 1599 republished edition). Wish I knew about Esword before I purchased it for those notes of the Reformers which can be seen in the picture. However, besides being a collector or conversation starter, it sits shelved while my ESV gets worn out, both in print and electronically on Esword.

                          On another note, Cornelius, if by chance you ever wish to, I wouldn't mind reading a short introduction by you. Tell us something about yourself in the Welcome Mat? You have been with us now for some time, bro.

                          And, welcome to the forums, Phil. Likewise feel free to introduce yourself as well.

                          God bless,
                          William
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                          • #14
                            Another OE style is the use of the word "fats" instead of "vats".
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                            • #15
                              How could there be a world wide flood, when there isn't enough water to do this?
                              And....
                              why would you do sush a thing, if you were a supreme being, if you could just un-create what you've done?
                              And...
                              the flood was sent, because GOD was unhappy with humans,
                              BUT....
                              didn't do anything when the humans killed Jesus?
                              Doesn't make sense to me?
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