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​The Adam’s Scratch

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  • ​The Adam’s Scratch

    I believe one of the most helpful concepts about God is that of His "omniscience." Understanding that He has always had knowledge of all things reveals much of His will and desires in the Scriptures. For example, when He commanded Adam not to partake of the "Tree of knowledge of good and evil" (Gen 2:17) He already knew Adam would disobey and since He allowed this act, I perceive negligible conflict with the concept that God used this occurrence to further reflect on His "image and "likeness" (Gen 1:26) in knowing that man would more so "become like one of Us, to know good and evil" (Gen 3:22).

    One can know something and not understand it, but receive its understanding through experience, which in my comprehension was likely God's plan. The word "know" in Hebrew is yada' (H3045 - yada` - Strong's Hebrew Lexicon (KJV)), and in the context of the above passage it is most sensibly applied with the definition "to understand, perceive, or discern." Since man already knew (knowledge but no understanding) what was good by what God "commanded," and "evil" by what He forbid (Gen 2:16, 17), the design of the word "know" here can be reasonably intended in sense to understand or comprehend.

    I enjoy sharing a humorous thought that God could have said, "I already know you're going to disobey Me, but don't." This could have confused Adam, causing him to begin scratching his head in perpetual contemplation, and today instead of the "Adam's Apple" (which I believe can be analogous to the first bight lodged in the throat to hinder swallowing it) it could be the "Adam's Scratch"!

    - NC

  • #2
    Originally posted by NetChaplain View Post
    I perceive negligible conflict with the concept that God used this occurrence to further reflect on His "image and "likeness" (Gen 1:26) in knowing that man would more so "become like one of Us, to know good and evil" (Gen 3:22).
    I would definitely acknowledge a conflict with that point of view, that is, God having denied to man what was known to God as an advantage to mankind. In Genesis 3:22 Adam is included in the word "us", though clear union exists in the Godhead - a communication that Adam had once directly with God as the source of life, was now deprived through excommunication.

    I guess we should feel rather fortunate, I mean Adam and Eve only had taken so little from the forbidden tree, could you imagine the effects of gluttony, that is, if Adam and Eve devoured the whole tree? :eek:

    God bless,
    William
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    • #3
      Originally posted by William View Post
      God having denied to man what was known to God as an advantage to mankind.
      Hi Will - I'm not sure of what you mean by this comment. Could you be clearer? Thanks.
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      • #4
        Originally posted by NetChaplain View Post

        Hi Will - I'm not sure of what you mean by this comment. Could you be clearer? Thanks.
        Another words, I reject the lie given by the serpent in the Garden of Eden as truth. I do not believe God denied man what was beneficial to man. I do however think that if the first Adam was righteous in disposition that he would of rejected the fruit of the forbidden tree.
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        • #5
          Originally posted by William View Post
          I do however think that if the first Adam was righteous in disposition that he would of rejected the fruit of the forbidden tree.
          I believe this is clear and makes a strong point that man's frailty was evident in the disobedience. I believe what Jesus said included Adam and Eve, which bears out the fact that "there is none good but one, that is, God" (Mat 19:17).
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          • #6
            Its just me but I myself believe Adam ate of the tree to become sin for his wife, in other words if you get destroyed we do so together, she had already eaten of the tree and Adam knew Gods punishment would be on her (death) so he did what he did out of love for her, and IMPO it was a test from God since He knew it was just a matter of time before the fall.

            I believe that's why Eve never witnessed anything being created, Adam couldn't be deceived because he saw God create many things, just my opinion.
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            • #7
              Originally posted by NetChaplain View Post
              I believe this is clear and makes a strong point that man's frailty was evident in the disobedience. I believe what Jesus said included Adam and Eve, which bears out the fact that "there is none good but one, that is, God" (Mat 19:17).
              I guess if I had advice to give to Adam before the fall it would be Proverbs 3:5. And on the point of Matthew 19:17 it is also said in Romans 3:10-11.

              God bless,
              William
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              • #8
                Originally posted by William View Post

                I guess if I had advice to give to Adam before the fall it would be Proverbs 3:5.
                I like that comment. With me this issue is either their acts were not supposed to occur or they were. It's inescapable for me to consider the latter due to God's foreknowledge, i.e. God couldn't declare that what they did was not suppose to happen, because He knew it would.

                I believe it's His plans and desired to teach man in this manner, mainly because He knew it would work, or He would have chosen a different way. But regardless of one's acceptance concerning this issue, and any other nonessential issue, sharing beliefs with one another are intended to increase understanding, and bonding one another in the truths of God, if performed properly, i.e. with the primary goal of promoting love to one another without compromising truth, and without attempting to contend with one another concerning Biblical truths for any selfish reasons (of course not accusing anyone). I certain you agree!

                Love and Truth Between The Saints
                Bob
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                • #9
                  Originally posted by NetChaplain View Post
                  With me this issue is either their acts were not supposed to occur or they were. It's inescapable for me to consider the latter due to God's foreknowledge, i.e. God couldn't declare that what they did was not suppose to happen, because He knew it would.
                  I reject the notion that God "decreed anything BECAUSE He foresaw it as future, or as that which would come to pass, upon such conditions" - WCF. God foresaw, that our first parents would yield to the temptation presented by Satan; but He did not purpose to permit the temptation and the fall, BECAUSE He foresaw it as that which would come to pass. He might have foreseen, that if the temptation were presented, Eve would yield; and He might have purposed to prevent the temptation. But for wise reasons He chose to permit both the temptation and the fall, designing to overrule both to His own holy ends. Further example, God did not decree the crucifixion of His Son, BECAUSE God saw that wicked men would do so, but He decreed it because it was necessary for Salvation.

                  If anything can be said, in Genesis 3:9, God knew if Adam was left to himself that "man" wills sin. Whether one is arguing Predestination or Double Predestination, God foreordains, but God actively chooses who to elect, and He actively chooses who to condemn. An incorrect distortion of Double Predestination suggests some inference or symmetry between the Elect and Reprobate exists, that is, the distortion says that God monergistically works sin in the life of man (Reprobate), thus making God the author of sin. That is not true, but BECAUSE God knows people have a sin nature, He simply lets them be (foreordains). Foreordination to wrath is therefore passive. In the Predestination of the Elect, God needs intervene, overcoming the sinful nature of His people through Regeneration, therefore, Predestination is active. Merely looking through the corridors of time is passive.

                  God bless,
                  William
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                  • #10
                    Originally posted by William View Post
                    I reject the notion that God "decreed anything BECAUSE He foresaw it as future
                    I see the concept being possible that what God allows He decrees because He has always used everything (good and bad) to accomplish His sovereign will.
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                    • #11
                      Originally posted by NetChaplain View Post
                      I see the concept being possible that what God allows He decrees because He has always used everything (good and bad) to accomplish His sovereign will.
                      Foreordination and Predestination are synonymous.
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                      • #12
                        Originally posted by William View Post

                        Foreordination and Predestination are synonymous.
                        True Brother. God does nothing outside of them because everything He has ever done and will do is predetermined by Him, since everything He knows is that which He has always known. Truly God's eternality (Heb 7:3) is the most mysterious, thus knowing when He knew He was going to act on creation is not something He had to decide, meaning there has never been a time when we were not on His mind!
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